Questions

Rudder control effectiveness is approximately up to:
What action is required to correct an EGPWS aural warning when on final approach in IMC below 500 feet AGL?
What should you do if you encounter unexpected weather during IMT 1 maneuvers?
Which is a correct stress-free method for maintaining hand position while maneuvering?
In the entry phase of a maneuver loop, how should you transition from straight flight?
Which sequence best describes the standard go-around procedure in IMT 1?
To initiate a missed approach profile the PF states which phrase when conducting a visual approach?
During the maintain phase of a maneuver loop, what should you ensure?
APPR mode indicates the aircraft is:
During an instrument approach, when should APPR or NAV mode be selected?
If the reported weather on takeoff was 00000KT 3/4SM BR OVC003 08/07 A29.92 what anti-ice systems must be selected on for takeoff?
Which speed is described as the targeted speed to be flown until flap retraction altitude?
If you lose an engine or power instrument failure occurs, what general action should you take in IMT 1?
Which primary flight control is used to control yaw?
While on an instrument approach if the reported visibility drops below minimums a precision approach may continue if
When entering a shallow banked turn, what immediate actions help ensure coordination?
Floating in ground effect during landing can cause:
LAHSO minimum ceiling and visibility:
What is the role of communication in IMT 1 when performing maneuvers around other traffic?
Thrust reversers are more effective at:
Ignoring instrument misreadings during IMT 1 can lead to what outcome?
What action is required to correct an EGPWS aural warning when enroute or on initial approach?
Which statement correctly describes the RA depiction difference between MFD and PFD?
What factor most influences the choice of bank angle in a turning maneuver during IMT 1?
How do you maintain situational awareness while performing a maneuver?
How does wind affect takeoffs and landings, and what is a common corrective technique?
During KMFR night visual approaches, which statement about remaining on track is true?
How would you describe the concept of energy management in IMT 1?
To initiate a missed approach profile the PF states which phrase when conducting an instrument approach?
In straight-and-level flight, besides heading, which two parameters must be kept constant?
When a TA is received, what is the PF's primary action?
The aural message that indicates you may return to the assigned altitude is:
Which practice helps ensure consistent maneuver performance during IMT 1?
Patchy contamination definition: what percentage or less?
Which statement about attitude stability is true?
What company chart can airport-specific EGPWS data be found?
Which item is explicitly listed as required for an instrument approach briefing?
How would you recognize instrument misreadings during IMT 1?
When can the RUNWAY IN SIGHT callout be made?
What is one personal risk management practice you should apply during IMT 1 maneuvers?
What items must be briefed on an instrument approach briefing?
When using thrust reversers, the PF reduces them to idle by:
Why is cross-checking instruments important during maneuvers in IMT 1?
Performance calculations assume the threshold is crossed at:
If flaps were extended, what flap position is called for on the escape maneuver?
What is the difference between indicated airspeed and true airspeed and which is typically monitored in IMT 1?
With thrust reversers deployed, the maximum N1 to be considered idle thrust is:
What would you do if you realize you misread airspeed during a maneuver?
What are the PF's actions when an RA is received?
Which action best demonstrates good energy management in a turn?
What is the purpose of checking clear airspace during an RA?
TOGA button sets the command bar to what degree of pitch up?
During a go-around, after applying full power, what is the next immediate priority?
What is the purpose of entering the traffic pattern at a designated goal altitude?
In which scenario is an immediate EGPWS/CFIT Escape Maneuver required without attempting corrections?
What is the immediate recovery action for a stall recognized in IMT 1?
What should you confirm in a standard takeoff briefing?
Which general outcome is achieved by effective scanning during IMT 1 maneuvers?
In IMT 1, how would you describe the concept of zero sideslip during a coordinated turn?
On a max performance takeoff, what action does the PF perform to set thrust?
Which statement best describes when the aircraft must be fully configured for landing?
What is the target airspeed on takeoff until reaching MFRA?
What is one common error pilots make during a go-around in IMT 1?
What are the PM's actions when an RA is received?
Which pilot verifies flight spoilers are retracted on the escape maneuver?
How does attitude stability impact maneuver performance?
Which symbol on the MFD indicates an RA?
What is the best practice for crosswind during landing in IMT 1?
During a go-around, how should flaps be handled if applicable?
When KMFR night visual approaches are accepted, which method is used to join the instrument approach course?
What is the minimum speed that may be flown until flap retraction altitude?
Rudder control is effective to approximately:
Which primary flight control is used to initiate roll?
In the terminal area, what range should be selected on the MFD?
What is the minimum visibility value that is not authorized for use?
Which statement describes the BEFORe LANDING CHECKLIST requirement?
When should ATC be notified after the crew has responded to an RA?
Which of the following statements best describes the role of the instructor during IMT 1 maneuvers?
On initial climb with the flaps extended to the takeoff flap setting full maneuvering capability is available at _____.
What is the recommended approach to practicing stalls in IMT 1?
In a max performance takeoff, the key action with thrust levers is to...
How is an RA depicted on the MFD and on the PFD?
LAHSO landing distance/weight information can be found in:
What color is the vertical speed indicator arc on the PFD during an RA?
During TCAS RA, what should be done with the autopilot?
From rotation to 1000' AFE, the minimum required airspeed is which value?
What is the approximate fuel burn to conduct a missed approach from a point 200 feet above runway and complete a subsequent approach from a 10 NM final?
By 500 ft HAT, which criterion must be met for stabilized approach?
Which primary flight control is used to control pitch?
What is the initial target pitch when initiating a missed approach profile?
What is the targeted speed to be flown until flap retraction altitude?
In IMT 1, what is energy management and why is it important?
Prior to calling 'GEAR UP', the PF must _____.
What is the purpose of maintaining ATIS or local traffic pattern altitude when entering the traffic pattern?
Energy management in IMT 1 involves balancing which two flight parameters?
When an airport is known to have EFIS magnetic interference on takeoff select _____ on the COMPASS switches for takeoff and climb until the ________ is complete.
If instrument readings are inconsistent with the outside view, what is a prudent action?
Thrust reversers are more effective at high speeds. true or false?
Why is it important to debrief after each maneuver in IMT 1?
Why should you avoid over-reliance on a single instrument during maneuvers?
What is the targeted speed to be flown after flap retraction altitude?
When a TA is received, what actions does the PM take?
Pressing the TOGA button sets the command bar to what degree of pitch up?
Differentiate between a power-on stall and a power-off stall in simple terms.
What is the recommended sequence for practicing a maneuver loop of entry, maintain, and exit in IMT 1?
How should you respond to unexpected turbulence during a maneuver in IMT 1?
NO turns shall be commenced below 1000' AFE when takeoff weather is less than ______________ unless a Special Departure Procedure prescribes otherwise or the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before reaching 1000' AGL.
For LAHSO, which describes the distance used to determine allowable touchdown?
What best describes the stabilized approach criteria by 1000 ft above the touchdown zone?
At minimums, if the PM calls MISSED APPROACH, what is the response from the PF?
Which KMFR night visual approach runways are specified for these procedures?
What is the targeted airspeed from rotation to 1000' AFE?
LAHSO touchdown: which distance is used as the cutoff?
What is a clearing turn and why is it performed prior to maneuvers?
What is the recommended traffic pattern entry procedure used in IMT 1?
Which speed reference is required for takeoff until MFRA in this procedure?
Which option correctly defines NAV mode during approach?
Before starting any maneuver, what is the essential safety check you must perform?
What is the target pitch attitude for the EGPWS/CFIT Escape Maneuver?
What elements may be missing in a weather report?
What kind of weather information is most important for IMT 1 maneuver planning?
When does the PF conduct the arrival briefing?
By 500 ft HAT, which item is part of the stabilization criterion?
During the exit phase of a maneuver loop, what should you aim for?
Which of the following is included as part of the items to brief on an instrument approach briefing?
What is the purpose of a standardized checklist in IMT 1 procedures?
Why is the highest threat verbalized at the end of the briefing?
During a static takeoff, when are brakes released?
How should you monitor aircraft attitude during banked turns in IMT 1?
Which speed is described as the targeted speed to be flown after flap retraction altitude?
LAHSO touchdown requirement: Where must the touchdown be accomplished?
Which statement correctly describes the status of flight spoilers by 1000 ft HAT in stabilized approach criteria?
Which statement best describes energy management during climbs and descents?
Which statement correctly describes the three primary flight controls and their effects on aircraft attitude?
When another aircraft is on a conflicting path during IMT 1 maneuvers, what is the recommended course of action?
During an RA maneuver, if an EGPWS warning occurs, what should you do?
How does trim influence performance during a maneuver?
Which is a safe practice during banked turns in IMT 1?
When is it recommended to accomplish FMS programming?
Which pilot may call for a go-around/missed approach?
Which statement best defines a stabilized approach?
What are common indicators of an impending stall?
Performance values assume the threshold crossing occurs at how many feet?
NOTAMs are located on the _____________ and SkyWest Online.
Why is altitude awareness critical during climbs and descents in IMT 1?
What is the purpose of 'maintaining a stabilized approach' during an IMT 1 approach pattern?
Which speed is described as the minimum speed that may be flown until flap retraction altitude?
During a constant-angle climb, how should altitude and airspeed be managed?
During landing, plan to touchdown in which area of the runway?
What is the practical effect of using trim during maneuvers?
The "APPROACH LIGHTS CONTINUE" callout can be made upon reaching which of the following, and only as a response to the which callout?
KMFR night visual approaches to Runways 14 and 32: what must crews do to accept a visual approach clearance?
Which COMPASS switch should be selected for takeoff and climb when EFIS magnetic interference is known?
What best describes situational awareness in IMT 1?
What is the relationship between bank angle and turn rate, stall risk, and altitude loss?
LAHSO distance/weight information is located in which document section?
If a high sink rate is required on approach, what is required?
Which statement is true about LAHSO minimums?
If an instrument failure or other abnormal condition occurs during IMT 1, which action best aligns with the standard response?
In an instrument approach briefing, which item is used to communicate approach specifics to the crew?
Which safety discipline is emphasized in IMT 1 to prevent errors?
In IMT 1, how should you interpret the term "bank angle" and its effect on turn rate?
What is the primary objective of IMT 1 Initial Maneuvers Training?
During a rolling takeoff, the PF must set thrust within what percent of the target N1?
Who should be notified as soon as possible after an RA is resolved?
What is a key benefit of effective scanning during IMT 1 maneuvers?
Which instrument primarily indicates pitch attitude in flight instrumentation?
Which resource should be consulted to determine airspace restrictions before a maneuver in IMT 1?
The maximum N1 to be considered idle thrust with thrust reversers deployed is:
What action is required to correct an EGPWS aural warning when on final approach in VMC?
Precision approaches are _______________ when available
Which value represents the approximate fuel burn for the described missed approach scenario?
Which of the following best describes how to achieve zero sideslip in a coordinated turn?
When should the landing gear be selected down on a CAT II ILS approach?
No approach should be initiated unless the prevailing conditions are _________ __________ and a landing is ___________________.
(True/False) A runway that is reporting contaminates as "Patchy" is considered to be contaminated runway.
Landing distance data is based on crossing the beginning of the available landing distance at 50' at ______ with the flaps in the specified landing configuration.
When performing a clearing turn, what is a key sign you are clear of traffic before entering the maneuver?
Which statement best describes the anti-ice selection for takeoff given the weather scenario provided?
What is the target airspeed after reaching MFRA?
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